Monday, September 19, 2011

RRB GROUP-D EXAM PAPER

1. The speed of light with the rise in the temperature of the medium—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unaltered
(D) Drops sharply
Ans : (C)
2. Which from the following rivers does not originate in Indian territory?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Ravi
(D) Chenab
Ans : (B)
3. The gas predominantly responsible for global warning is—
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Nitrogen peroxide
Ans : (A)
4. 26th January is India’s—
(A) Independence Day
(B) Republic Day
(C) Revolution Day
(D) Parliament Day
Ans : (B)
5. Which of the following uses non-conventional Source of Energy?
(A) Kerosene lamp
(B) Wax candle
(C) Solar lantern
(D) Torch
Ans : (C)
6. Electric current is measured by—
(A) Voltmeter
(B) Anemometer
(C) Commutator
(D) Ammeter
Ans : (D)
7. The dynamo is a device for converting—
(A) Heat energy into electrical energy
(B) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Magnetic energy into electrical energy
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)
9. The hardest substance available on earth is—
(A) Platinum
(B) Diamond
(C) Quartz
(D) gold
Ans : (A)
10. Washing soda is the common name for—
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium carbonate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans : (C)
11. 2008 Olympic games will be held in—
(A) China
(B) Greece
(C) Italy
(D) France
Ans : (A)
12. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Captain of Indian Test Cricket Team?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Mahender Singh Dhoni
Ans : (C)
13. Who among the following has been selected as new coach for the Indian Cricket Team?
(A) Vivian Richards
(B) Gary Kirsten
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Allan Border
Ans : (B)
14. The mascot for the 34th National Games, to be held in Jharkhand in 2008, is—
(A) Sheru
(B) Roopa
(C) Chauva
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
15. With which game is the Agha Khan Cup associated?
(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Basketball
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)
16. The term, L.B.W. is associated with which of the following games?
(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Football
(D) Polo
Ans : (A)
17. Wankhede stadium is situated in?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
18. The Olympic games are normally held at an interval of—
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Ans : (C)
19. Jaspal Rana is the name associated with which of the following games?
(A) Boxing
(B) Shooting
(C) Archery
(D) Weight lifting
Ans : (B)
20. Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports is located at—
(A) Kolkata
(B) New Delhi
(C) Jhansi
(D) Patiala
Ans : (D)
21. A person wants to contest election for the membership of Gram Panchayat, what should be his age?
(A) 18 years or above
(B) 19 years or above
(C) 21 years of above
(D) Minimum 25 years
Ans : (C)
22. Who summons the joint sitting of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (A)
23. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayat?
(A) Property Tax
(B) House Tax
(C) Land Tax
(D) Vehicle Tax
Ans : (C)
24. All electioneering campaigns during the time of elections are stopped.
(A) 48 hours before the appointed time of election results
(B) 48 hours before the actual poll
(C) 24 hours before the actual poll
(D) 36 hours before the actual poll
Ans : (D)
25. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (A)
26. The General Budget is presented in the parliament normally in the month of—
(A) January
(B) February
(C) March
(D) Last month of the year
Ans : (B)
27. Who is the signatory on the Indian currency notes in denomination of two rupees and above?
(A) Secretary, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Secretary, Minister of Finance
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Minister, Ministry of Finance
Ans : (C)
28. The monetary unit of Bangladesh is—
(A) Rupee
(B) Takka
(C) Rupiah
(D) Dollar
Ans : (B)
29. Sellers market denotes a situations where—
(A) Commodities are available at competitive rates
(B) Demand exceeds supply
(C) Supply exceeds demand
(D) Supply and demand are equal
Ans : (B)
30. Development means economic growth plus—
(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Price stability
(D) Social change
Ans : (D)
31. The Abbreviation NAEP stands for—
(A) National Atomic Energy Planning
(B) National Adult education Programme
(C) National Authority on Engineering Projects
(D) Nuclear and Atomic Energy Project
Ans : (B)
32. The Abbreviations PSLV stands for—
(A) Polar Survey Landing Vehicle
(B) Polarised Source Laser Viewing
(C) Precise Source Locating Vision
(D) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)
33. The term ’epicentre’ is associated with—
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Tornadoes
(C) Cyclones
(D) Earth’s interior
Ans : (A)
34. Which of the following order is given to the plantes of solar system on the basis of their sizes?
(A) Jupiter, Saturn, Earth, Mercury
(B) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(C) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(D) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Ans : (A)
35. The solar eclipse occurs when—
(A) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(B) the earth comes in the between the sun and the moon
(C) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. The removal of top soil by water or wind is called—
(A) Soil wash
(B) Soil erosion
(C) Soil creep
(D) Silting of soil
Ans : (B)
37. Which of the following is suitable for growing cotton?
(A) Sandy soil
(B) Clayey soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Alluvial soil
Ans : (C)
38. Bandipur Sanctuary is located in the State of—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)
39. Largest State in terms of area, in India is—
(A) Assam
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (C)
40. Koraput is related to which of the following Industry—
(A) Aeroplane
(B) Ship building
(C) Iron and steel
(D) Electric locomotives
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following group of States is the largest producer of tea?
(A) West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh
(B) Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(C) Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand
(D) West Bengal, Assam, Karnataka
Ans : (D)
42. Which of these has the largest river basin?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Ganga
(C) Godavari
(D) Sutlej
Ans : (B)
43. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for—
(A) Well-planned cities
(B) Efficient civil organization
(C) Development of Art and Architecture
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
44. The Red Fort of Delhi was built by—
(A) Akbar
(B) Shahjehan
(C) Jahangir
(D) Sher Shah
Ans : (B)
45. The ancient name of the city of Patna is—
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Kanauj
(C) Kausambi
(D) Kapilavastu
Ans : (A)
46. The ancient kingdom of “Avanti” had its capital at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Kausambi
(C) Ujjain
(D) Ayodhya
Ans : (C)
47. When did Vasco-da-Gama come to India—
(A) 1492
(B) 1498
(C) 1398
(D) 1542
Ans : (B)
48. The General who gave the firing order at Jallianwala Bag was—
(A) Tegart
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Simpson
(D) O. Dwyer
Ans : (D)
49. Gandhiji started Satyagraha in 1919 to protest against the—
(A) Rowlatt Act
(B) Salt Law
(C) Act of 1909
(D) Jallianwala Bagh Messacre
Ans : (A)
50. The Britishers come to India as traders and formed company named—
(A) Indo-British Company
(B) The Great Britain Company
(C) Eastern India Company
(D) East India Company
Ans : (D)
51. Mahatma Gandhi was born in—
(A) Wardha
(B) Porbander
(C) Sabarmati
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (B)
52. Who gave the slogan “You give me blood, I promise you freedom”?
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
53. In which State is Jawahar Tunnel located?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Uttaranchal
(C) Goa
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (D)
54. Where did the dance form “Mohini Attam” develop?
(A) Manipur
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)
55. On selling three articles at the cost of four article, there will be profit of—
(A) 25%
(B) 100/3 %
(C) 75/2%
(D) 40%
Ans : (B)
56. By selling an article for Rs. 40, there is loss of 40%. By selling it for Rs. 80 there is—
(A) Gain of 20%
(B) Loss of 10%
(C) Loss of 20%
(D) Gain of 10%
Ans : (A)
57. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 8. If 8 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. The number is—
(A) 44
(B) 35
(C) 62
(D) 33
Ans : (D)
58. A horse is tied to a peg hammered at one of the corner of a rectangular grass field of 40 m by 24 m by a rope 14 m long. Over how much area of the field can the horse graze?
(A) 154 m2
(B) 308 m2
(C) 240 m2
(D) 480 m2
Ans : (A)
59. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 30 cm. The length of the greatest side of the triangle in cm is—
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 16
Ans : (C)
60. The radius of a right circular cone is 3 cm and its height is 4 cm. The curved surface of the cone will be—
(A) 12 ? sq. cm
(B) 15 ? sq. cm
(C) 18 ? sq. cm
(D) 21 ? sq. cm
Ans : (B)
61. The steam engine was invented by—
(A) James Watt
(B) James Prescott Joule
(C) New Commen
(D) Isaac Newton
Ans : (A)
62. Who invented the telephone?
(A) Thomas Alva Edison
(B) Galileo
(C) Alexander Graham Bell
(D) G. Marconi
Ans : (C)
63. Albert Einsten was a famous—
(A) Physician
(B) Chemist
(C) Physicist
(D) Biologist
Ans : (C)
64. The fractions 7/11, 16/20, 21/22 when arranged in descending order is—
(A) 7/11, 16/20, 21/22
(B) 21/22, 7/11, 16/20
(C) 21/22, 16/20, 7/11
(D) 7/11, 21/22, 16/20
Ans : (C)
65. If 10% of a number is subtracted from it, the result is 1800. The number is—
(A) 1900
(B) 2000
(C) 2100
(D) 2140
Ans : (B)
66. The number is just preceding 9909 which is a perfect square is—
(A) 9908
(B) 9900
(C) 9899
(D) 9801
Ans : (D)
67. In banking ATM stands for—
(A) Automated Tallying Machine
(B) Automatic Teller Machine
(C) Automated Totalling Machine
(D) Automated Transaction of Money
Ans : (B)
68. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian Defence forces?
(A) DOD
(B) RDSO
(C) DRDO
(D) DRES
Ans : (C)
69. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian space programme?
(A) NASA
(B) ISO
(C) ISRO
(D) NSAT
Ans : (C)
70. The injection of anti-toxin is given to prevent—
(A) Tetanus
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Typhoid
(D) Filariasis
Ans : (A)
71. Dental caries are due to—
(A) Viral infection
(B) Contaminated water
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Hereditary causes
Ans : (C)
72. Palak leaves are rich source of—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iron
(C) Carotene
(D) Vitamin E
Ans : (B)
73. Which of these is not a mosquito borne disease?
(A) Dengue fever
(B) Malaria
(C) Filariasis
(D) Goitre
Ans : (D)
74. Oranges are rich source of—
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fats
(C) Proteins
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (D)
75. Which acid is produced when milk gets sour?
(A) Tartaric acid
(B) Butyric acid
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Acetic acid
Ans : (C)
76. AIDS stands for—
(A) Acquired Immune Disease Syndrome
(B) Acquired Immunity Deficient Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immune Deficiency
(D) Acquired Infection Deficiency Syndrome
Ans : (C)
77. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing—
(A) Cotton
(B) Banana
(C) Jute
(D) Sugar Cane
Ans : (D)
78. Persons with which blood group are called universal donors—
(A) AB
(B) A
(C) O
(D) B
Ans : (C)
79. Silk is produced by—
(A) Egg of silkworm
(B) Pupa of silkworm
(C) Larva of silkworm
(D) Insect itself
Ans : (C)
80. Which amongst the following is the train introduced by Indian Railways bringing travel by AC class withing the reach of a common man?
(A) August Kranti
(B) Jan Shatabdi
(C) Garib Rath
(D) Sampark Kranti
Ans : (C)
81. Approximately how many stations are there on the Indian Railway Network?
(A) 6000
(B) 7000
(C) 8000
(D) 9000
Ans : (B)
82. The Headquarters of North Western Railway is at—
(A) Abu Road
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (D)
83. The new electric railway engines are manufactured in—
(A) Varanasi
(B) Chittaranjan
(C) Patiala
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
84. Which of the following is true in regard to Indian railway?
(A) It is the cheapest means of transportation
(B) The chief source of income is transportation of goods
(C) It is the only largest employer
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
85. The highest gallantry award in India is—
(A) Ashok Chakra
(B) Paramvir Chakra
(C) Mahavir Chakra
(D) Param Vishista Chakra
Ans : (B)
86. Oscar prize is related to—
(A) Literature
(B) Films
(C) Science
(D) Music
Ans : (B)
87. Arjuna award is given for—
(A) Bravery in the battle field
(B) excellence in archery
(C) excellence in sports
(D) excellent service during emergency
Ans : (C)
88. The first Indian recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature is—
(A) Mother Teresa
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Sorijini Naidu
(D) C.V. Raman
Ans : (B)
89. Bismillah Khan is related to—
(A) Tabla
(B) Sarod
(C) Flute
(D) Shehnai
Ans : (D)
90. Who is the external affairs minister in the present union Cabinet?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Priyaranjan Dasmunshi
(D) A.K. Antony
Ans : (B)
91. Who is the present Union Agriculture Minister?
(A) Raghuvansh Prasad Singh
(B) Manishankar Iyyer
(C) Sharad Parwar
(D) Kamalnath
Ans : (C)
92. Who is the present union Tourism and Culture Minister?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Renuka Chaudhary
(D) Sushil Kumar Shinde
Ans : (A)
93. Who is the chairman of senior selection committee in BCCI?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Dilip Vengasarkar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Chetan Chauhan
Ans : (B)
94. The assembly elections were held recently in two states namely—
(A) Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)
95. Thermometer is related to degree in the same way as clock is related to—
(A) Wall
(B) Tower
(C) Hour
(D) Cock
Ans : (C)
96. The headquarters of the United Nations Union is located at—
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Rome
(D) Washington
Ans : (B)
97. To work on mobile cell phone which of the following is/are required?
(A) Favourable handset
(B) Sim card
(C) Service provider network
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
98. Find the root value of 36.1 / 102.4—
(A) 61 / 34
(B) 19 / 31
(C) 19 / 32
(D) 19 / 33
Ans : (C)
99. Which of the following keys of personal computer is not available in the key board of traditional typewriters?
(A) Tab
(B) Spacebar
(C) Enter
(D) Backspace
Ans : (C)
100. Which of the following words is not related to the functioning of Internet?
(A) www
(B) http
(C) e-mail
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

RRB GROUP-D EXAM PAPER

1. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as Horse Latitudes lies between
(a) 00 and 150
(b) 200 and 250
(c) 300 and 350
(d) None of these
Ans: ( c ) 300 and 350
2. Zimbabwe was formerly known as
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans: ( a ) Rhodesia
3. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Bonn – Danube
(b) Baghdad – Tigris
(c) Rome – Seice
(d) Paris – Tiber
Ans: ( b ) Baghdad – Tigris
4. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c) Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans: ( a ) Kiel Canal
5. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans: ( d ) Tapti
6. Srinagar is situated on the bank of the river
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab
Ans: ( c ) Jhelum
7. The Shompens are the tribal people of
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans: ( b ) Nicobar
8. Match the following
A. Manas I. Hangul
B. Dachigam II. Elephant
C. Mudumalai III. Tiger
D. Kaziranga IV. Rhinoceros
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I II IV
(c) II IV III I
(d) I III IV II
Ans: ( b ) III I II IV
9. In India, Plan holiday was after
(a) China-India war of 1962
(b) Draught of 1966
(c) Pakistan war of 1971
(d) Pakistan war of 1965
Ans: ( b ) Draught of 1966
10. Which of the following is not a ?Free Trade Zone? ?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: ( d ) Trivandrum
11. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans: ( d ) 3600
12. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans: ( b ) 90
13. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculates, 50% of the remaining are graduates and remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are graduates ?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans: ( c ) 180
14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: ( a ) Habeas Corpus
15. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territories may be established by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of State
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: ( b ) Parliament by making law
16. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) M. C. Setalvad
(b) K. M. Munshi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B. N. Rau
Ans: ( d ) B. N. Rau
17. During the period of Renaissance, the new style of architecture first developed in
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans: ( a ) Italy
18. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay-Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans: ( d ) East Bengal
19. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts ?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai Khidmatgars
(d) People led by Rani Gaidinliu
Ans: ( c ) Khudai Khidmatgars
20. The State in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: ( c ) Mizoram
21. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Gulbarga – Karnataka
(b) Midnapur – Gujarat
(c) Wardha – Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin – Tamil Nadu
Ans: ( a ) Gulbarga – Karnataka
22. U Thant Award is given for
(a) Contribution to east-west understanding
(b) Community leadership
(c) Social service
(d) Journalism
Ans: ( c ) Social service
23. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans: ( a ) South Africa
24. The first electric railway was opened in
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans: ( d ) 1925
25. Machael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games ?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(c) Golf
(d) None of these
Mathematics
1. 3010 + 660 /60 +380 =?
(A) 3401
(B) 3409
(C) 3400
(D) 3411
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
2. 1549 – (615-382) – 2191+438 =238-?
(A) 379
(B) 675
(C) 437
(D) 657
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
3. ? % of 932+30=309.6
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
4. 18% of 47+34% of 72 =?
(A) 22.94
(B) 33.94
(C) 32.94
(D) 32.84
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
5. 28.59+61.398-7.24-44.859=?
(A) 37.989
(B) 47.889
(C) 37.899
(D) 37.889
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
6. 33529.8/?=4089
(A) 6.2
(B) 7.2
(C) 8.2
(D) 9.2
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
7. 48% of 35 + 22% of 78 -28% of 64 =?
(A) 16.04
(B) 18.58
(C) 14.96
(D) 12.78
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
8. 7547 – 4816 = 2816 – ?
(A) 75
(B) 85
(C) 95
(D) 105
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
9. 476.52 – 135.03 79.6 = 251.8 + ?
(A) 169.29
(B) 179.29
(C) 189.29
(D) 169.19
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
10. 8190 X ?% of 25 = 20475
(A) 2.5
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
11. 4/9 of 40500 / ? = 120
(A) 160
(B) 125
(C) 150
(D) 140
Ans (C)
12. 88 % of 370 + 24% of 210 -?=118
(A) 158
(B) 358
(C) 268
(D) 256
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
13. The L.C.M. and H.C.F of two positive numbers is 200 and 20 respectively. If one of the numbers is 100, what is the other number?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 80
(D) 100
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
14. What is the cost price of the article if when it is sold for Rs.168, a loss of 16% is incurred?
(A) 200
(B) 180
(C) 220
(D) 210
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. The ratio of the ages of A and B ten years ago was 3:5. If the ratio of their present ages is 2:3 how old is B today?
(A) 40 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 60 years
(D) 24 years
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
16. Raza and Shanu started a business in partnership by investing Rs.12000 and Rs.15000 respectively? If at the end of one year, Raza’s share in the profit was 1200 what is the total profit?
(A) 2400
(B) 2800
(C) 3000
(D) 2700
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
17. The average of 6 numbers is 3.95 if the average of the two of them is 3.4 while that two is 3.85 what is the average of remaining two numbers?
(A) 4.8
(B) 4.7
(C) 4.6
(D) 4.5
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
18. If 200% of a number is 800, what will be 0.5 % of that number is?
(A) 2
(B) 20
(C) 200
(D) 2000
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
19. What is the compound interest on the principal of Rs.20000 at the rate of 9% p.a. for a period of 2 years?
(A) Rs.3600
(B) Rs.3762
(C) Rs.3900
(D) Rs.3846
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
20. The age of the father is 5 times of the son. After 20 years father age is 40. Then what will be the age of the son.
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
21. A train travels at the speed of 80 K.M per hour. What will be the time taken by the train to travel a distance of 480 K.Ms?
(A) 4 hours
(B) 5 hours
(C) 6 hours
(D) 7 hours
Ans (C)
22. Satyam purchased a car for Rs.200,000 and used it for two years. After he sold it for Rs.160,000.What is the percentage of loss he incurred?
(A) 14%
(B) 16%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
23. 1000 X 45% /10=?
(A) 35
(B) 45
(C) 4.5
(D) 3.5
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
24. 27197 – 13486 +5469 – 8643 =?
(A) 11534
(B) 10634
(C) 10537
(D) 10534
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
25. 3.48 X 1.9+19.008=30% of ?
(A) 85.4
(B) 8.54
(C) 6.854
(D) 854
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
General Knowledge
1. The main sources about the Indus Valley civilization are :
(1) Inscriptions
(2) Coins
(3) Manuscripts on leaves of palm and birch
(4) Archaeological excavations
2. The propounder of Yoga School of Philosophy was
(1) Patanjali (2) Gautam
(3) Jaimini (4) Shankaracharya
3. The term ?Double Fault? is related to the game of
(1) Badminton (2) Golf
(3) Tennis (4) Cricket
4. Which of the following pairs of names are related?
(1) Golf- Polo (2) Soccer- Football
(3) Billiards- Snookers (4) Volleyball- Football
5. Which of the following pairs is the highest peak of India?
(1) Kanchanjungha (2) Nanda Devi
(3) Mount Everest (4) Kamet
6. After how many years elections are held to elect the members of Rajya Sabha?
(1) 6 years (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years
7. Which of the following is the longest river in India?
(1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra
(3) Yamuna (4) Godavari
8. Which of the following vitamins is obtained from sunlight?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin B
9. How many bones are there in the human body?
(1) 206 (2) 202
(3) 204 (4) 203
10. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
(1) Amazon (2) Nile
(3) Mississippi (4) Danube
11. Silk is mostly obtained from
(1) Ujjain (2) Koshambi
(3) Taxila (4) Varanasi
12. Who among the following is associated with the Sarnath Inscription ?
(1) Ashoka (2) Harshavardhana
(3) Chandra Gupta Maurya (4) Samundra Gupta
13. Which of the following names of play ground is correct?
(1) Ring ? Skating (2) Diamond ? Cricket
(3) Field ? Cycling (4) Bull ? Tennis
14. Who among the following is competent to amend the provisions of citizenship?
(1) Parliament (2) President
(3) Prime Minister (4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
15. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the President?
(1) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Vice President
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of a High Court?
(1) Governor
(2) President
(3) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(4) Council of Ministers
17. Railway in included in which of the following lists?
(1) Union list (2) State list
(3) Concurrent list (4) None of these
18. Who among the following was the first and last woman ruler of Delhi?
(1) Razia Beghum (2) Chand Bibi
(3) Mumtaz (4) Karnavati
19. Who among the following was the first to land on moon?
(1) Neil Armstrong (2) Tenzing Norgay
(3) Rakesh Sharma (4) Edwin Aldrin
20. Who among the following was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest?
(1) Bachendri Pal (2) Santosh Yadav
(3) Dicky Dolma (4) None of these
21. Zero hour is the period
(1) just after question hour in both Houses of Parliament
(2) at the starting of the sitting
(3) at the end of sitting
(4) None of these
22. The maximum interval between the two sessions of the Houses is
(1) Six months (2) 3 months
(3) 2 months (4) one year
23. The period of proclamation of emergency is
(1) one month (2) two months
(3) six months (4) one year
24. The Chief Minister who remained in the office for the longest period :
(1) Jyoti Basu (2) Lalu Prasad
(3) Mayawati (4) M. Karunanidhi
25. The Salarjung Museum is located in
(1) Hyderabad (2) Bhopal
(3) Patna (4) Ranchi
26. Which of the following gases is filled in a balloon?
(1) Helium (2) Hydrogen
(3) Bromine (4) Oxygen
27. Which of the following is called Banker?s Bank?
(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) State Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank (4) None of these
28. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (2) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Sachchidanand Sinha
29. Which of the following is the longest platform in the world?
(1) Kharagpur (2) Kolkata
(3) Leningrad (4) Tokyo
30. Who among the following built the Grand Trunk road?
(1) Shershah (2) Akbar
(3) Humayun (4) Shahjehan
31. Focus on the age eye is adjusted through
(1) Retina (2) Iris
(3) Comea (4) Lens
32. Who among the following was the ruler of Kalinga?
(1) Kharvela (2) Ashoka
(3) Samudragupta (4) None of these
33. Maximum oil can be extracted from
(1) Sunflower (2) Groundnut
(3) Mustard (4) Cardamom
34. The most suitable conductor is
(1) Saline water (2) Fresh water
(3) Pure water (4) None of these
35. The mausoleum of which saint is located in Ajmer?
(1) Moinuddin Chisti (2) Badruddin Zacharia
(3) Khwaja Walliullah (4) Abdul Shatari
36. Gobar gas mainly contains
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(3) Propane (4) Butane
37. Who among the following invented the decimal system?
(1) Aryabhatt (2) Copernicus
(3) Magellan (4) Charak
38. Nose starts bleeding when one climbs up mountain due to
(1) low pressure (2) high pressure
(3) height (4) None of these
39. In which of the following sectors maximum number of women are employed?
(1) Tea (2) Agriculture
(3) Jute (4) Textile
40. Railway earns maximum revenue from
(1) freight charges (2) passenger fares
(3) advertisement (4) None of these
41. Which of the following is called the laughing gas?
(1) Nitrogen Oxide (2) Hydrogen Oxide
(3) Nitrous Oxide (4) Sulphur Oxide
42. Who was the first Indian to qualify for Olympics?
(1) Shiny Abraham (2) PT Usha
(3) Karmam Malleshwari (4) Jyotirmony Sikdar
43. During Shivaji?s childhood, who among the following exercised the maximum influence on his character?
(I) Jija Bai, his mother (II) Dadaji Kondadev, his tutor
(III) Shahji Bhonsle, his father
(1) I Only (2) I and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II
44. ?Black Hole Episode? was the main cause of :
(1) Battle of Buxar (2) Battle of Plassey
(3) Battle of Wandiwash (4) Battle of Haldighati
45. Who is known as the ?Grand Old Man of India??
(1) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Kan (2) C. Rajgopalachari
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Dadabhai Naoroji
46. The slogan ?Inquilab Zindabad? was first raised by :
(1) Lokmanya Tilak (2) Veer Savarkar
(3) Chandrashekhar Azad (4) Bhagat Singh
47. Which of the following is/ are true about Sarojini Naidu?
(a) She was the First Woman President of the Congress
(b) She was the first Woman Governor in independent India
(c) She was the first Health Minister in independent India
(d) She wrote the famous ?Golden Bough?
(1) a, b and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) Only b
48. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky?
(1) Mercury (2) Mars
(3) Jupiter (4) Saturn
49. Geostationary orbit is at a height of :
(1) 6 km (2) 1000 km
(3) 3600 km (4) 36,000 km
50. The ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere protects us from :
(1) Cosmic rays (2) Ultrasonic waves
(3) Infra- red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
51. Nights are cooler in the deserts than in the plains because :
(1) sand radiates that more quickly than the earth
(2) the sky remains clear most of the time
(3) sand absorbs heat more quickly than the earth
(4) None of these
52. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the world?
(1) Colorado Plateau (2) Pamir Plateau
(3) Patagonia Plateau (4) Potwar Plateau
53. Pointing towards a woman Manju said that ?She is the sister of father of son of my mother?. How is that woman related to woman?
(1) Aunt (2) Sister
(3) Niece (4) None of these
54. Tipu Sultan was the ruler of
(1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai
(3) Mysore (4) Vijayanagar
55. Which of the following passes through India?
(1) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn
(2) Prime Meridian (4) Equator

ANSWERS:

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1)
26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4)
46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (4)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1)

POSTAL/SORTING ASSISTANT EXAM MODEL PAPER

1. The thief made a clean breast of his crime. The phrase ‘made a clean breast of’ means
(A) cleaned his chest
(B) fought for
(C) faced bravely
(D) confessed without hiding anything

2. The mother of the victim left………. in her efforts to get the culprit convicted. The blank can be filled by.
(A) resigned to her fate
(B) home
(C) no stone unturned
(D) right

3. Complete the following proverb “Rome was not built in a
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year

4. ‘Phobia’ means
(A) hobby
(B) payment made before using a service
(B) study of something
C) fear of something
(D) craze

5. ‘Post-Paid’ means
(A) a post office term
(B) payment made before using a service
(C) payment made after using a service
(D) payment made at the time of using the service

6. Complete the phrase : “As faithful as a
(A) cat
(B) donkey
(C) dog
(D) fox

7. A doctor who specializes in the treatment of children is called?
(A)pedestrain
(B)pediatrician
(C)pedologist
(D) pedigree

8 The police are ………………….the theft in the office. The blank can be filled by.
(A) instigating
(B)interrogating
(C)investigating
(D)introspecting

9.The Supervisor needs a ……..of scissors for opening the envelope.
(A)pair
(B) pear
(C)pare
(D) twin

10. The collective noun for a group of elephants is?
(A)group
(B) gang
(C)pack
(D) herd

11. How many minutes before 12 Noon is it when it is 10:35 a.m.?
(A)86
(B) 87
(C)85
(D) 84

12. Statements:
All scientists are fools.
All fools are intelligent.
Conclusions:
I. All scientists are intelligent.
II. All intelligent people are scientists.
III. All intelligent people are fools.
IV. Some intelligent people would be scientists.
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only IV is correct
(C) Only I and IV are correct
(D) Only II and IV are correct

13. Ramesh walked 10 metres towards north, took a left turn and walked 75 metres, again took a left turn and walked 100 metres and stopped walking. What direction was he facing when he stopped walking?
(A) north
(B) south
(C) north-west
(D) south-east

14. Pick the odd one out
(A)fruit
(B) flower
(C)leaf
(D) petal

15. Pick the odd one out
(A)cuckoo
(B) crow
(C)bat
(D) parrot

16. Pick the odd one out
(A)gold
(B) copper
(C)silver
(D) brass

17. Identify the city which is the odd one out?
(A) Patna
(B) Ranchi
(C) Raipur
(D) Jamshedpur

18.The leading producer of tin in the world is?
(A) Bolivia
(B) Brazil
(C)Indonesia
(D) Malaysia

19. Which is the odd one out in the following?
(A) Triangle
(C) Circle
(B) Rectangle
(D) Sphere

20. If we are viewing an angle of 3° through a magnifying glass capable of magnifying 3 times, how big would the angle look?
(A)9°
(B) 30°
(C)6°
(D) 12°

21. 300 bananas were purchased at As. 128 a hundred. What should be the selling price per dozen, if a profit of Rs. 66 is to be made?
(A)Rs. 15
(B) Rs.18
(C)Rs. 20
(D) Rs 21

22. Choose the correct algebraic statement for the following “A number is equal to 3 less than three times another number.”
(A) y=3x—3
(B) y=3x/3
(C) y=3x+5
(D) 3y=3x—3

23. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 18 (remainder 0)?
(A) 245678
(B) 2456789
(C) 2445678
(D) 2455678

24. A 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm brick weights 64 kg. What would be the weight of a brick of size 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm?

(A)32 kg
(B)8 kg
(C)16kg
(D) 1 kg

25. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 6.30 p.m.?
(A)0°
(B)15°
(C)30°
(D)195°

26. Mr. Dhoni has 5 pairs Of white gloves and 5 pairs of black gloves, which he keeps in a box. If he picks 3 gloves at random, what is the probability that he will get a matching pair?
(A)0.5
(B) 0.75
(C)0.9
(D)1

27. If the length and breadth of a room are 48 feet and 24 feet respectively, and the space diagonal (one corner on ceiling to opposite corner on floor) is 56 feet, what is the height of the room?
(A)l4 feet
(B) 15 feet
(C)16 feet
(D) l7 feet

28. What is the next number in the following sequence?
0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34
(A)50
(B) 55
(C)53
(D) 51

29. ‘34’ is related to 12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to?
(A)95
(B) 54
(C)45
(D) 17

30.If 20 x X = 20 + X, what is the value of X?
(A) 19/20
(B)18/20
(C) 18/19
(D)20/19

31. Which neighboring country of India embraced democracy recently to become the world’s youngest democracy?
(A)Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka

32. Which of the following took over the Anglo Dutch Steel Company Corus?
(A) Arcelor Mittal
(B) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(C) Tata Steel
(D) Jindal Steel

33. For International payments Indian currency is linked to?
(A) Gold Standard
(B) International Oil Price
(C) American Dollars
(D) Pound Sterling

34. Which organization, headed by Indian environmentalist Dr. A. K. Pachauri has been awarded
Nobel Peace Prize in 2007?
(A) International Global Warming
(B) International Environment Panel
(C) International Panel on Pollution Control
(D) International Panel on Climate change

35. Which day is observed as the World Habitat Day?
(A) March27
(B) September 30
(C) October 5
(D) October 2

36. Which game will be played for the first time in 2010 Asian Games?
(A) Twenty-20 Cricket
(B) Kabaddi
(C) Kho-Kho
(D) Gilli Danda

37. Reserve Bank of India is a?
(A) Private Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Foreign Bank
(D) Central Bank

38.Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of origin?
(A) Brahmaputra and Indus
(B) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(C) Godavari and Krishna
(D) Indus and Gangs

39. What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) It helps in early harvesting
(B) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
(C) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(D) It ensures maximum utilization of land

40.All of the following rivers flow into or join the Ganges on its left side except?
(A)Gomti
(B) Gandak
(C)Son
(D) Kosi

41. As the height above sea level increases, the temperature?
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) Change of height has no effect on temperature

42. Which of the two planets listed below are closer to the sun than the earth?
(A) Mercury and Mars
(B) Mercury and Venus
(C) Venus and Mars
(D) Jupiter and Saturn

43. Which of the following countries is not in the continent of Asia?
(A)Lebanon
(B) Libya
(C)Japan
(D) Singapore

44.The land masses of India and Sri Lanka are connected by which of the following straits?
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Bering Strait
(C) Malacca Strait
(D) Palk Strait

45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Manipur—Imphal
(B) Meghalaya—Shillong
(C) Mizoram—Agartala
(0) Nagaland—Kohima

46. From North to South, the correct sequence of the following sea ports is?
(A) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakapatnam, Paradip
(B) Paradip, Chennai, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin
(C) Paradip, Vishakapatnarn, Tuticorin, Chennai
(D) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin

47. The International Date Line is located in the?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

48. Which Bank has recently changed its name to Axis Bank?
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) Citi Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) UTI Bank

49. What is the expanded form of MICA?
(A) Magnetic ink Character Recognition
(B) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(C) Magnetic Inline Character Reader
(D) Magnetic Inline Code Reader

50. Which sector contributes most towards the GDP of India?
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Railway
(C) Cotton Textile industry
(D) Service Sector

Answers:
1 D 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 C 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 D 17 D 18 D 19 D 20 B
21 B 22 A 23 C 24 D 25 B 26 D 27 C 28 B 29 C 30 D
31 A 32 C 33 C 34 D 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 C 40 C
41 A 42 B 43 B 44 D 45 C 46 D 47 A 48 D 49 A 50 D

SSC 2011 EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal
(B) Phew Dorajee
(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi
(D) Yoko Ono
Ans : (A)

2. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chemistry
(C) Fluid Mechanics
(D) Astrophysics
Ans : (D)

3. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(B) V. K. Krishna Menon
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
Ans : (A)

4. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force
(B) Rapid Action Force
(C) Reverse Action Force
(D) Repeat Action Force
Ans : (B)

5. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)

6. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Tajikistan
Ans : (D)

7. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil
(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram
(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
Ans : (C)

8. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008
(A) Saumika Mishra
(B) Santosh Sen
(C) Amit Kumar
(D) Pappu
Ans : (A)

9. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Ireland
Ans : (D)

10. The three medals that IndiAns won in the Beijing Olympics were in
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling
(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis
(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
Ans : (A)

11 There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Justice of a High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Vice President
Ans : (C)

12. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Barmer
Ans : (D)

13. Garba is a dance form of
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

14. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh
(B) Ajit Pal Singh
(C) Joginder Singh
(D) Milkha Singh
Ans : (D)

15. Fundamental Rights are not given to
(A) Bankrupt persons
(B) Aliens
(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease
(D) Political sufferers
Ans : (B)

16. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave
(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
Ans : (A)

17. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(D) Five years
Ans : (C)

18. Consent of the people meAns consent of
(A) A few people
(B) All people
(C) Majority of the people
(D) Leader of the people
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Gram Cooperative Society
(D) Nyaya Panchayat
Ans : (C)

20. Match the following—Union Territory
(A) Puducherry
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Daman and Diu
Jurisdiction (High Court)
1. Kerala
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Calcutta
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (A)

21. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

22. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Zinc
Ans : (A)

23. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as
(A) Neutrophilia
(B) Nephrosis
(C) Necrosis
(D) Neoplasia
Ans : (A)

24. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Salmonella typhi
Ans : (D)

25 Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by
(A) Proteins
(B) Fats
(C) Minerals
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (B)

26. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Filtration
(C) Flocculation
(D) Water softening
Ans : (D)

27. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by
(A) Koch
(B) HAnsen
(C) Fleming
(D) Harvey
Ans : (B)

28. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare
2. M. C. Sharma
3. Gajendra Singh
4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

29. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(A) Promote heavy industries in India
(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine
(D) Enable IndiAns to move freely within the country
Ans : (B)

30. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) R. G. Bhandarkar
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) B. G. Tilak
Ans : (A)

31. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (D)

32. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

33. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Persons—Events
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : ()

34. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra
(B) Kabul
(C) Lahore
(D) Delhi
Ans : (A)

35. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered

as
(A) Absolute Poverty
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) Urban Poverty
(D) Rural Poverty
Ans : (A)

36. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector
4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4
(B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 4
Ans : (B)

37. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, according

to 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)

38. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) P. A. Samuelson
(D) J. S. Mill
Ans : (C)

39. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves
(A) Upward to the right
(B) Downward to the right
(C) Horizontally
(D) Vertically
Ans : (A)

40. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi
(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(D) Shri D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)

41. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning
(C) Opposite meaning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

42. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is
(A) Saturn
(B) Uranus
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
Ans : (D)

43. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is
(A) Terrestrial telescope
(B) Astronomical telescope
(C) Compound microscope
(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)

44. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in
(A) Inductance
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Capacitance
Ans : (B)

45. It is difficult to cook rice
(A) At the top of a mountain
(B) At the sea level
(C) Under a mine
(D) Same anywhere
Ans : (A)

46. X-rays were discovered by
(A) Becquerel
(B) Roentgen
(C) Marie Curie
(D) Van Lue
Ans : (B)

47. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)

48. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are
(A) Hormones
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Pheromones
(D) Steroids
Ans : (C)

49. Match the source in Column B with the product of Column A.
Column A (Product)
(A) Formic acid
(B) Citric acid
(C) Tartaric acid
Column B (Source)
1. Lemon
2. Tamarind
3. Ants
(A) (B) (C)

(A) 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 2 1 3
Ans : (B)

50. An emulsifier is an agent which
(A) Stabilises an emulsion
(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion
(D) Homogenises an emulsion
Ans : (A)

SSC 2011 EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which Indian filmstars was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University, (U.K.) ?
(A) Amitabh Bachhan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Om Puri
(D) Amir Khan
Ans : (B)

2. Williams Sisters won the U.S. Open Women’s Doubles Title 2009 after defeating in the final—
(A) Leizal Herber and Cara Blank
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna Kournikova
(C) Coroline Wozniacki and Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania Mirza
Ans : (A)

3. Which one of the following is a military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) NATO
(D) NAFTA
Ans : (C)

4. The recipient of the 42nd Jnan Peeth Award is—
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K. Kamal Kumar
Ans : (C)

5. World Development Report is an annual publication of—
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) WTO
(D) World Bank
Ans : (D)

6. Which one of the following is correct ? Player — Sport
(A) Jeev Milkha Singh —Tennis
(B) Jhulan Goswami —Cricket
(C) Baichung Bhutia —Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani —Badminton
Ans : (B)

7. Which one of the following industrialists was declared ‘The Business Person of the year 2008’ by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
Ans : (C)

8. Naina Devi peak forms a part of—
(A) Himalayan range located in Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (B)

9. The aim of the ISRO’s OCEANS AT-2 satellite is—
(A) To provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) To aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) To aid weathermen to forecast cyclones and weather conditions
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

10. Who amongst the following is not the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Vijendra Singh
(B) Sushil Kumar
(C) M. C. Marykom
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)

11. Nilgiri, Himgiri and ‘Beas’ are—
(A) Aircraft Carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
Ans : (B)

12. The age of a tree can be calculated by—
(A) Number of branches
(B) Its height
(C) Girth of its trunk
(D) Number of its annual rings
Ans : (D)

13. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale ?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
Ans : (D)

15. A rolling plan refers to a plan which—
(A) Does not change its targets every year
(B) Changes its allocations every year
(C) Changes its allocations and targets every year
(D) Changes only its targets every year
Ans : (C)

16. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is—
(A) Open market operations
(B) Credit rationing
(C) Change in reserve ratio
(D) Bank rate policy
Ans : (B)

17. Laissez-faire is a feature of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
Ans : (C)

18. Which one of the following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States ?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
Ans : (D)

19. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is—
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
Ans : (B)

20. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India ?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
Ans : (B)

21. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve ?
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
Ans : (C)

22. According to J. A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their……… activities.
(A) Innovative
(B) Risk taking
(C) Risk averting
(D) Hard work
Ans : (A)

23. Demonstration effect means—
(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) Imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Ans : (B)

24. Homogeneous product is a feature of—
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
Ans : (D)

25. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans : (D)

26. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the Government” ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Shri B. N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)

27. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as—
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
Ans : (A)

28. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is—
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Two hours
(D) Unspecified
Ans : (B)

29. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Ans : (C)

30. When will demand become a grant ?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
Ans : (C)

31. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
Ans : (D)

32. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (D)

33. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice-President can be heard by—
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
Ans : (C)

34. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of—
(A) The village, the block and the district levels
(B) The mandal and the district levels
(C) The village, the district and the State levels
(D) The village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
Ans : (A)

35. Which of the following has banned ‘floor crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature ?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Ans : (A)

36. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to—
(A) Those sections of society which pay Income-tax
(B) Those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced
(C) Those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) All sections of upper castes of the society
Ans : (B)

37. When was the Panchtantra written ?
(A) Maurya Period
(B) Kanishka Period
(C) Gupta Period
(D) Harsha Period
Ans : (C)

38. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
Ans : (A)

39. The battle of Mahabharata is believed to have been fought at Kurukshetra for—
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Ans : (C)

40. The Mukteswara Temple is located at—
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
Ans : (D)

41. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Ans : (A)

42. Between which two rulers was the First Battle of Panipat fought?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Bairam Khan and Sikandar Lodi
(D) Shah Jahan and Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)

43. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari ?
(A) Abul Fazal
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Ans : (A)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I — List-II
(A) Peshwas 1. Nagpur
(B) Gaekwads 2. Pune
(C) Bhonsles 3. Indore
(D) Holkers 4. Baroda
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

45. Which reformer from Maharashtra was known as Lokhitavadi ?
(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Ans : (D)

46. ‘Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a success because—
(A) After Akbar, it was not patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected to the masses
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

47. Who was the author of the book ‘My Experiments with Truth’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (C)

48. Give the correct chronological order of the following events—
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Untouchability League
3. Formation of All India Trade Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (D)

49. 80% of the coal in India comes from—
(A) Jharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
Ans : (A)

50. Dry zone agriculture in India contributes nearly 40% of the total—
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Ans : (D)

Tuesday, September 13, 2011

UGC NET Public administration Solved Paper

1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)

3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)

6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)

7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)

8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)

9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)

12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)

13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)

16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)

18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)

19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)

20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)

22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)

24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)

27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)

30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)

33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)

34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)

38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)

40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)

41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)

42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)

45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)

49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)

UGC NET COMMON QUESTION PAPER


This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all streams.


1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?



(A) To give information related to the syllabus.

(B) To develop thinking power of students.

(C) To dictate notes to students.

(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.



2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?



(A) Lecture and Dictation

(B) Seminar and Project

(C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment



3. Teacher uses teaching aids for



(A) Making teaching interesting

(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students

(C) Making students attentive.

(D) The sake of its use.



4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on



(A) Qualification of teacher

(B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher

(D) Subject understanding of teacher



5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?



(A) Objectivity

(B) Subjectivity

(C) No use of vague words

(D) Reliable.



6. A researcher is generally expected to:



(A) Study the existing literature in a field

(B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others

(D) Evaluate the findings of a study



7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:



(A) Replicability

(B) Generalizability

(C) Usability

(D) Objectivity



8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is:



(A) Case Study

(B) Developmental

(C) Survey

(D) Experimental



9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a



(A) Conference

(B) Seminar

(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium



10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called



(A) Research paper

(B) Article

(C) Thesis

(D) Research report



Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.



11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our



(A) Political system

(B) Social behaviour

(C) Individual behaviour

(D) Behaviour of a group of people



12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind



(A) Economic prosperity

(B) Vote bank

(C) People' welfare

(D) Patriotism



13. "Trump Card" means



(A) Trying to move a dead horse

(B) Playing the card cautiously

(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others

(D) Making the final jolt for success



14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies



(A) Lust for power

(B) Desire to serve the nation

(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities

(D) Political corruption



15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha



(A) 10

(B) 7. 91

(C) 43

(D) 9. 1



16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as



(A) Interpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Grapevine Communication



17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as



(A) Gyan Darshan

(B) Vyas

(C) Eklavya

(D) Kisan



18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information:



(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Punjab



19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is



(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education

(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction

(C) Educate, Interact & entertain

(D) Entertainment only



20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:



(A) Personality of communicator

(B) Experience in the field

(C) Interactivity with target audience

(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.



21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:



(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony

(B) Trees in a garden

(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway

(D) Student population in a class



22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?



(A) Antecedent - consequent

(B) Acceptability

(C) Verifiability

(D) Demonstratability



23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is



(A) A fact

(B) An value

(C) An opinion

(D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?



(A) Beam

(B) Plank

(C) Shaft

(D) Timber



25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?



(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 150



26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.
 
 
27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements?



(i) All machines make noise

(ii) Some machines are noisy

(iii) No machine makes noise

(iv) Some machines are not noisy

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iv)



28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.

Assumptions:

(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.

(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.



(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit

(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit

(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit

(D) Both the assumptions are implicit



29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-restraint?

(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices.

(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.



(A) Only the argument (i) is strong

(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong

(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong



30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down.

What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?



(A) Valid

(B) Invalid

(C) Doubtful

(D) Long drawn one

Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below.

 
Students
Papers
I
II
III
IV
W
60
81
45
55
X
59
43
51
A
Y
74
A
71
65
Z
72
76
A
68
Where 'A' stands for absent
Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35



31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



33. Who has obtained the highest average



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates



(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV



35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



36. ICT stands for



(A) Information common technology

(B) Information & communication technology

(C) Information and computer technology

(D) Inter connected technology



37. Computer Can



(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information

(B) Store huge information

(C) Process information and fast accurately

(D) All the above.



38. Satellite Communication works through



(A) Rader

(B) Transponder

(C) Receptor

(D) Transmitter



39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is



(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) Partially correct

(D) None of the above.



40. Information and communication technology includes



(A) E-mail

(B) Internet

(C) Education television

(D) All the above.



41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in.



(A) Increase in availability of usable land.

(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.

(C) Fall in the sea level

(D) melting of polar ice.



42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?



(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Sikkim

(D) West Bengal



43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for



(A) Grasslands

(B) Conifers

(C) Mangroves

(D) Arid forests



44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river



(A) Ganga

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Narmada



45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?



(A) Pine

(B) Teak

(C) Neem

(D) Oak



46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:



(A) Medical

(B) Management

(C) Pharmaceutical

(D) Aeronautical



47. Which of the following is a Central university



(A) Mumbai University

(B) Calcutta University

(C) Delhi University

(D) Madras University



48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates



(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary

(D) Theory of Separation of Power



49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:



(A) 30 % of the total seats

(B) 33 % of the total seate

(C) 33% of the total population

(D) In Proportion to their population



50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

LIST ( Institutions)

LIST II( Locations)

1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute

(i) Pune

2. Institute of Armament Technology

(ii) Izat Nagar

3. Indian Institute of Science

(iii) Delhi

4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi

(iv) Bangalore and Administrators


(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)

(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)

(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)

(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)


Answers:

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D
  41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. A