UGC NET Public administration Solved Paper

1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)

3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work

4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)

6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)

7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)

8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)

9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)

12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)

13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)

16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)

18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)

19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)

20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)

22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)

24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)

27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)

30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)

33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)

34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)

38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)

40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)

41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)

42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)

45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)

49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)