UGC NET Public administration Solved Paper

1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)

3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work

4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)

6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)

7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)

8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)

9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)

12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)

13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)

16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)

18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)

19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)

20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)

21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)

22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)

24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)

27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)

28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)

29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)

30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)

31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)

33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)

34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)

37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)

38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)

40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)

41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)

42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)

45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)

49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)

UGC NET COMMON QUESTION PAPER

This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?



(A) To give information related to the syllabus.

(B) To develop thinking power of students.

(C) To dictate notes to students.

(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.



2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?



(A) Lecture and Dictation

(B) Seminar and Project

(C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment



3. Teacher uses teaching aids for



(A) Making teaching interesting

(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students

(C) Making students attentive.

(D) The sake of its use.



4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on



(A) Qualification of teacher

(B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher

(D) Subject understanding of teacher



5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?



(A) Objectivity

(B) Subjectivity

(C) No use of vague words

(D) Reliable.



6. A researcher is generally expected to:



(A) Study the existing literature in a field

(B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others

(D) Evaluate the findings of a study



7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:



(A) Replicability

(B) Generalizability

(C) Usability

(D) Objectivity



8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is:



(A) Case Study

(B) Developmental

(C) Survey

(D) Experimental



9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a



(A) Conference

(B) Seminar

(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium



10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called



(A) Research paper

(B) Article

(C) Thesis

(D) Research report



Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.



11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our



(A) Political system

(B) Social behaviour

(C) Individual behaviour

(D) Behaviour of a group of people



12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind



(A) Economic prosperity

(B) Vote bank

(C) People' welfare

(D) Patriotism



13. "Trump Card" means



(A) Trying to move a dead horse

(B) Playing the card cautiously

(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others

(D) Making the final jolt for success



14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies



(A) Lust for power

(B) Desire to serve the nation

(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities

(D) Political corruption



15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha



(A) 10

(B) 7. 91

(C) 43

(D) 9. 1



16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as



(A) Interpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Grapevine Communication



17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as



(A) Gyan Darshan

(B) Vyas

(C) Eklavya

(D) Kisan



18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information:



(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Punjab



19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is



(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education

(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction

(C) Educate, Interact & entertain

(D) Entertainment only



20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:



(A) Personality of communicator

(B) Experience in the field

(C) Interactivity with target audience

(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.



21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:



(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony

(B) Trees in a garden

(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway

(D) Student population in a class



22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?



(A) Antecedent - consequent

(B) Acceptability

(C) Verifiability

(D) Demonstratability



23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is



(A) A fact

(B) An value

(C) An opinion

(D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?



(A) Beam

(B) Plank

(C) Shaft

(D) Timber



25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?



(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 150



26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.
 

 

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements?



(i) All machines make noise

(ii) Some machines are noisy

(iii) No machine makes noise

(iv) Some machines are not noisy

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iv)



28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.

Assumptions:

(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.

(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.



(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit

(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit

(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit

(D) Both the assumptions are implicit



29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-restraint?

(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices.

(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.



(A) Only the argument (i) is strong

(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong

(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong



30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down.

What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?



(A) Valid

(B) Invalid

(C) Doubtful

(D) Long drawn one

Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below.

 

Students	Papers
	I	II	III	IV
W	60	81	45	55
X	59	43	51	A
Y	74	A	71	65
Z	72	76	A	68
Where 'A' stands for absent

Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35



31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



33. Who has obtained the highest average



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates



(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV



35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared



(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z



36. ICT stands for



(A) Information common technology

(B) Information & communication technology

(C) Information and computer technology

(D) Inter connected technology



37. Computer Can



(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information

(B) Store huge information

(C) Process information and fast accurately

(D) All the above.



38. Satellite Communication works through



(A) Rader

(B) Transponder

(C) Receptor

(D) Transmitter



39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is



(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) Partially correct

(D) None of the above.



40. Information and communication technology includes



(A) E-mail

(B) Internet

(C) Education television

(D) All the above.



41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in.



(A) Increase in availability of usable land.

(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.

(C) Fall in the sea level

(D) melting of polar ice.



42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?



(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Sikkim

(D) West Bengal



43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for



(A) Grasslands

(B) Conifers

(C) Mangroves

(D) Arid forests



44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river



(A) Ganga

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Narmada



45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?



(A) Pine

(B) Teak

(C) Neem

(D) Oak



46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:



(A) Medical

(B) Management

(C) Pharmaceutical

(D) Aeronautical



47. Which of the following is a Central university



(A) Mumbai University

(B) Calcutta University

(C) Delhi University

(D) Madras University



48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates



(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary

(D) Theory of Separation of Power



49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:



(A) 30 % of the total seats

(B) 33 % of the total seate

(C) 33% of the total population

(D) In Proportion to their population



50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

LIST ( Institutions)

LIST II( Locations)

1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute

(i) Pune

2. Institute of Armament Technology

(ii) Izat Nagar

3. Indian Institute of Science

(iii) Delhi

4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi

(iv) Bangalore and Administrators


(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)

(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)

(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)

(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

Answers:

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D
  41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. A

UGC-NET/JRF Exam Solved Question Paper -2010

Subject – History

Note – This paper contains fifty multiple choice questions, each question carrying two marks. 
Attempt all of them.

1. given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The rise of religious movements condition of the deprive sections of the society embolden them to seek their rightful place.
Reason (R): The improved economic conditions of the deprived sections of the society embolden them to seek their rightful place.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below –
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. 
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.   
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

2. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Kushana period witnessed large scale cultural integration.
Reason (R): Kushana Kings advocated themselves it by example.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true.

3. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Megalithic period.
(ii) Chalcolithic period.
(iii) Northern black polished ware.
(iv) Black and Red ware.
Codes:          
(a) (iii), (iv), (I), (ii)                         
(b) (ii), (iv), (I), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (I)                        
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

4. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Janapada                                      
(ii) Mahajanapada
(iii) Empire                                      
(iv) Jana
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (I), (iv)                         
(b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(c) (iv), (I), (ii), (iii)                         
(d) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)

5. Arrange the followings into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Malvikagnimitra                         
(ii) Harshacharta
(iii) Ashtadhyayi                                             
(iv) Rajatarangini
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (I)                         
(b) (iii), (ii), (I), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)                         
(d) (iii), (I), (ii), (iv)

6. Which of the following is associated with the lower Paleolithic period?
(a) Home Erectus                             
(b) Neanderthal
(c) Homo Sapience                          
(d) Homo sapience sapience

7. Which among the following represents the Mesolithic period?
(a) Olduwan tools                            
(b) Hand axe
(c) Triangle tools                             
(d) polished tools

8. Which among the following denotes the Neolithic period?
(a) Kunal             
(b) Lothal            
(c) Daimabad      
(d) Chirand

9. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Harappa civilization was developed with the application of copper tools.
Reason (R): This enabled people to make better use of the available natural resources.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is true.              
(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true.                       
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

10. given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During the Rig Vedic period the society was pastoral.
Reason (R): The mode of subsistence was primarily based on pastoralism.
Read the above statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. 
(b) (A) is untrue, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.       
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

11. In which of the following forces it is stated that prithviraj III entertained the ambition of conquering the whole world?
(a) Taj-ul-Maasir                             
(b) Prithviraj Prabandha
(c) Tabqat-i-Nasiri                          
(d) Prithviraj Raso

12. Who among the following Delhi Sultans enlarged the Quwwat-ul-islam mosque?
(i) illtutmish                                      
(ii) Balban
(iii) Alaud-din Khilji                       
(iv) Firozshah Tughlaq
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (ii), (iv)                                  
(b) (I) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)                                  
(d) (I), (ii), (iii)

13. Who among the following sultans of Delhi advocated the policy that “follows the middle course in realizing the Kharaj”?
(a) Balban                                          
(b) Jalalud-din Khilji
(c) Ghyasud-din Tughlaq                
(d) Firoj Tughlaq

14. Which of the following statements are not true about sultan ghyasud-din Tughlaq?
(i) He befriended sheikh Nizamuddin aulia
(ii) He gave certain concessions to Khots and Muqaddams
(iii) He sent his son Ulugh Khan to recover arrears of tribute from pratapa Rudra
(iv) He levied a tax termed haqq-i-shurb
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) (I), (ii) and (iii)                           
(b) (I) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)                                 
(d) (ii) and (iv)

15. Who put forth the hypothesis of ‘Urban revolution’ in northern India during the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries?
(a) K. M. Ashraf                                
(b) Moreland
(c) Mohammad                                 
(d) K. S. Lal

16. Arrange the following into sequential order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Pulkeshin-II                                 
(ii) Pushyamitra shunga
(iii) Shankaracharya                        
(iv) Chandrabardai
Codes:
(a) (ii), (I), (iii), (iv)                         
(b) (I), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (I)                         
(d) (iv), (I), (iii), (ii)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Levirate                                      
(b) Punch-marked coins
(c) Varmanas                                    
(d) Nalanda
List – II
(i) Kamrup                                        
(ii) Rig Veda
(iii) Bihar                                          
(iv) Early historical period
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         2             3             1             4
(B)         2             4             1             3
(C)         2             3             4             1
(D)         4             3             2             1
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Second Urbanization                 
(b) Kharavela
(c) Gautamiputra                            
(d) Vikramadeva Charita
List – II
1. Satavahana Dynasty                    
2. Bilhana
3. Orissa                                           
 4. Iron
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             1             2             3
(B)         3             2             4             1
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         4             3             1             2

19. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Nagar style of architecture       
(b) Shravanbelagola
(c) Tantrayan                                    
(d) Mahenderaverman Shailey
List – II
1. Buddhism                                      
2. Pallava dynasty
3. North India                                    
4. Karnataka
Codes:
               (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3             4             1             2
(B)         4             1             2             3
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         4             3             1             2

20. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Kalibanga                                    
(b) Mitathal
(c) Atranjikhera                                
(d) Jakhera
List – II
1. R. C. Gaur                                      
2. M. D. N. Sahi
3. Suraj Bhan                                    
4. B. B. Lal
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         2             3             1             4
(B)         4             3             1             2
(C)         3             4             2             1
(D)         1             3             4             2

21. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The arrival of north Indian Sufis in the Deccan during the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries brought deep changes in the region’s political and religious fabric.
Reason (R): They came to the Deccan to justify Khalji and early Tughlaq invasions of the Deccan plateau.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a)    (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)   (A) is false but (R) is true.

22. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the vijayanagara ruling dynasties?
(a) Saluva, Tuluva, Sangama, Aravidu
(b) Sangama, Suluva, Tuluva, Aravidu
(c) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva, Aravidu
(d) Sangama, Aravidu, Saluva, Tuluva

23. The Portuguese captured Goa in the year –
(a) 1496               
(b) 1510               
(c) 1524               
(d) 1556

24. Arrange the following events into correct chronological order:
(i) Propagation of Vaishnavite Bhakti by Ramananda
(ii) Compilation of Adigrantha
(iii) Close of the Ibadatkhana
(iv) Foundation of the Chishti order in the Daccan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (iv), (iii), (ii)                         
(b) (I), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (I), (iii)                        
(d) (iv), (I), (iii), (ii)

25. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Akbar proclaimed Dahsala in the twenty-fourth year his reign.
Reason (R): He decided to abolish all other existing methods of land revenue assessment in the Mughal empire.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)   (A) is false but (R) is true.

26. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(a)    The mughal conquest of Malwa
(b)   Introduction of the Ilahi Era
(c)    Annexation of Kashmir in Mughal Empire
(d)   Conquest of Odisha
List – II
1. 1584  
(b) 1592               
(c) 1585               
(d) 1561

27. Which of the following illustrated manuscripts were prepared during Akbar’s time?
(a) The Diwan-i-Amir Hasan Dihlavi
(b) The Raj kanwar
(c) The Tutinama
(d) The Yoga vashista
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (I), (ii), and (iv)                          
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (I), (iii) and (iv)                          
(d) (iii) and (iv)

28. Who among the following foreign travelers described the manufacture of indigo in India?
(a) Ibn  Battuata                                
(b) Nicolo De Conti
(c) William Finch                             
(d) Peter Mundi

29. Match List – I with List – II and select the answers from the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Ahmad Yadgar
(b) Sujan Rai
(c) Khwaja Kamghar Ghairat Khan
(d) Shah Nawaz Khan
List – II
1. Maasir-i-Jahangiri                       
2. Maasir-ul-Umara
3. Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghaniah     
4. Khulast-ut-Twarikh
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3            4             1             2
(B)         2             1             3             4
(C)         3             2             1             4

30. Shahu was set free from the Mughal captivity by –
(a) Aurangzeb                                   
(b) Prince Azam
(c) Prince Kambakhsh                     
(d Jahandar shah

31. By which act the British Parliament had abolished the monopoly of East India Company’s trade in India?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773                 
(b) Charter Act, 1813
(c) Charter Act, 1833                       
(d) Government of India Act, 1858

32. Arrange the following British Legislations concerning women in chronological order:
(i) Hindu Widow Remarriage Act
(ii) The Native Marriage Act (Civil Marriage Act)
(iii) Abolition of Sati in Bengal Province
(iv) The Age of Consent Act
Codes:
(a) (iii), (I), (ii), (iv)                         
(b) (I), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (ii), (I), (iii)                         
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

33. Arrange in chronological order the Famine Commissions formed by the Government of British India:
Macdowell Commission formed by the Government of British India:
(i) Macdowell Commission            
(b) Lyall Commission
(iii) Campbell Commission            
(d) Strachey Commission
Codes:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (I)                         
(b) (iii), (iv), (I), (ii)
(c) (I), (ii), (iii), (iv)                         
(d) (ii), (iii), (I), (iv)

34. Maulana Shibli Nomani belonged to the –
(a) Aligarh School                            
(b) Deoband Madarsa
(c) Firangi Mahal                             
(d) Nadwat-ul-ulema

35. Gandhiji’s intervention in the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1917 led to the enhancement of wages of the workers by –
(a) 25% 
(b) 30% 
(c) 35% 
(d) 40%

36. Who was known as the father of ‘Humanism’?
(a) Dante                                            
(b) Erasmus
(c) Machiavelli                                 
(d) Petrarch

37. The fee paid to the Lord for the use of the mill, brewery and bakery was known as –
(a) Banalite         
(b) Corvee           
(c) Gabelle          
(d) Taille

38. The theory of ‘General Will’ was put forward by –
(a) Diderot           
(b) Montesquieu                
(c) Rousseau       
(d) Voltaire

39. Bullionism and the favourable balance of trade were the basic features of –
(a) Colonialism                                
(b) Commercialism
(c) Free Trade                                   
(d) Mercantilism

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List – I
(a) Erasmus         
(b) Machiavelli   
(c) Thomas More 
(d) Dante
List – II
1. Divine Comedy                            
2. Utopia
3. The Prince                                     
4. Praise of Folly
Codes:
              (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         3            2             1             4
(B)         2             1             3             4
(C)         1             2             3             4
(D)         4             3             2             1

41. The chief grievance of the peasants in Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was against the –
(a) A wabs or illegal cesses
(b) Oppression of the landlords
(c) Land revenue demand
(d) Tinkathia system

42. In which Session the Indian National Congress adopted the resolution on Fundamental Rights?
(a) Madras (1927)                            
(b) Lahore (1929)
(c) Karachi (1931)                           
(d) Faizpur (1936)

43. Who argued that de-industrialization did not take place in India under the colonial rule?
(a) Amiyo Baghchi                           
(b) Bipan Chandra
(c) Morris D Morris                         
(d) Toru Matsui

44. Who founded the Hindu College of Calcutta in 1817?
(a) David Hare                                  
(b) William Jones
(c) H. T. Princep                                              
(d) Henry Vivian Derozio

45. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer.
List – I
(a) Maulana Abul kalam Azad       
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan                              
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
List – I
1. The Indian Struggle
2. Asbab-i-Bhagawt-i-Hind
3. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
4. India wins freedom
Codes:
               (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             3             2             1
(B)         3             2             1             4
(C)         2             4             3             1
(D)         1             2             3             4

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer.
List – I
(a) Chinnava                                     
(b) Haji Shariat Ullah
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju                    
(d) Krishna Daji Pandit
List – II
1. Rampa Uprising 1922                
2. Gadkari Revolt 1944
3. Faraizi Movement 1838                             
4. Dittur Uprising 1924
Codes:
                (a)          (b)          (c)          (d)
(A)         4             3             1             2
(B)         3             4             1             2
(C)         1             2             3             4
(D)         2             1             4             3

47. Paramountcy is the position of permanent power enjoyed by the British Government in relation to the –
(a) Zamindars                                   
(b) Princely states
(c) Peasants                                       
(d) Christian Missionaries

48. The Congress Ministry in Madras during 1937-39 was headed by –
(a) T. Prakasham                                             
(b) Subramanium Bharti
(c) C. Rajgopalachari                       
(d) K. Kamraj

49. Who was the Chairman of the Crafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad                   
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) B. N. Rau                                     
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

50. Arrange the following events in their chronological order:
(i) Cripps Mission                            
(ii) Quit India Movement
(iii) Individual Satyagraha              
(iv) August Offer
(a) I, ii, iii, iv                                     
(b) iv, iii, I, ii
(c) iii, iv, ii, I                                     
(d) ii, I, iv, iii

Answers:

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
A	D	B	C	B	A	C	D	C	D
11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
A	B	C	*	C	A	B	D	A	B
21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
C	B	B	D	C	B	D	C	A	B
31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
B	A	*	D	A	D	A	C	B	A
41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
A	C	C	A	A	A	B	*	B	B