Saturday, August 27, 2011

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAM., 2010

General Studies 

(Exam Held on 18-4-2009)

1.   Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimen-sion ?
(A)   Potential energy and kinetic energy
(B)   Density and specific gravity
(C)   Focal length and height
(D)   Gravitational    force    and frictional force
2.   Which   one   of   the   following graphs     represents     uniform motion ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.   How  many  sixty  watt  (60 W) bulbs may be safely used in a 240-V supply with 4-ampere fuse ?
(A)   4                  (B)  8
(C)   12                (D)  16
4.   A vessel contains oil (density r1) over a liquid of density r2; a homogeneous sphere of volume V floats with half of its volume immersed in the liquid and the other half in oil. The weight of the sphere is—
(A)   V(r2 – r1) / 2
(B)   V(r2 + r1)g / 2
(C)   V(r2 + r1)
(D)   V(r2 + r1) / 2
5.   For a simple pendulum in simple harmonic motion, which of the following     statements     is/are correct ?
1.      The kinetic energy is maxi-mum at the mean position.
2.      The   potential   energy   is maximum   at   the   mean position.
3.      Acceleration is maximum at the mean position.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)   1 only
(B)   2 only
(C)   1 and 3
(D)   2 and 3
Directions—(Q. 10–13) The following four items are based on the Table given below. You are to match List-I with List-II, List-III and List-IV, and select the  correct  answer  using  the  code given below :
List–I   (Element) List–II      (Property) List–III (Property/Composition) List–IV (Property/Composition)
A.   Diamond B.   Graphite 1.  Thermosetting polymer I.      Rigid structure II.    Sheet-like i.      Non-conductor of heat
C.   Rayon 2.  Monomer structure ii.     Ester
D.   Nylon 3.  Soft III.   Cellulose iii.    Conductor of heat
E.   Carbon 4.  Viscose process IV.   Soft on heating iv.    Ether
fibre F.    Polyvinyl 5.  Synthetic fibre 6.  High strength V.    Unreactive VI.   Corrosion v.     Silk-like thread vi.    Spacecraft
chloride G.   Terylene
H.   Bakelite
7.  Thermoplastic 8.  Polyester fibre
9.  Hardest natural
VII.  Melts instead of burning VIII. Ethylene glycol vii.   Chlorine atom replaces hydrogen atom

substance IX.   Phenol and viii.  Cross-linked


formaldehyde ix.    Terephthalic acid
10.         List-I  List-II   List-III   List-IV
(A)    A          9            I             i
(B)     B          3           IV           iv
(C)    A          9            I             ii
(D)    B          3            II            v
6.   The metal atom, which is present in superphosphate, is—
(A)   sodium (Na)
(B)   potassium (K)
(C)   calcium (Ca)
(D)   magnesium (Mg)
7.   The best and the poorest conduc-tors of heat are respectively—
(A)   silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)
(B)   copper (Cu) and aluminium (Al)
(C)   silver (Ag) and gold (Au)
(D)   copper (Cu) and gold (Au)
8.   Which one among the following metals   is   more   reactive   than hydrogen ?
(A)   Mercury     (B)  Copper
(C)   Silver         (D)  Tin
9.   The number of neutrons in 13Al27 is—
(A)   40                (B)  27
(C)   14                (D)  13
11.         List-I  List-II   List-III   List-IV
(A)    C          4            II             i
(B)    D          5          VII           v
(C)    C          6            V           vi
(D)    D          5            II            iv
12.         List-I  List-II   List-III   List-IV
(A)    E          6            I            vi
(B)     F          7           IV           ix
(C)    E          6           VI           vi
(D)    F          3           VI           v
13.         List-I  List-II   List-III   List-IV
(A)    G          8            I            ix
(B)    H          4           IV          iii
(C)    G          8          VIII         ix
(D)   H          1           VI         viii
14.   Which of the following is a transi-tion metal ?
(A)   Aluminium (Al)
(B)   Manganese (Mn)
(C)   Magnesium (Mg)
(D)   Calcium (Ca)
15.   Which one of the following gases, present in the air near the surface of the Earth, has maximum con-centration ?
(A)   Oxygen (O2)
(B)   Hydrogen (H2)
(C)   Nitrogen (N2)
(D)   Methane (CH4)
16.   Which one of the following ele-ments   will   replace   hydrogen from acids to form salts ?
(A)   Sulphur (S)
(B)   Silicon (Si)
(C)   Zinc (Zn)
(D)   Phosphorus (P)
17.   Which   of   the   following   repre-sents a chemical change ?
1.      Magnetization of iron
2.      Condensation of liquid
3.      Burning of fuel
4.      Rusting of iron
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A)   1 and 2        (B)  2 and 3
(C)   3 and 4       (D)  1 and 4
18.   Which one among the following is the correct order of reactivity of the elements ?
(A)   Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
(B)   Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
(C)   Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
(D)   Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
19.   Vinegar is produced from—
(A)   ethanoic acid
(B)   valeric acid
(C)   methanoic acid
(D)   butanoic acid
20.   Match   List-I   with   List-II   and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a)   Ozone gas
(b)   Nitrous oxide
(c)    Carbon dioxide
(d)   Carbon monoxide
List-II
1.     Combines with haemoglobin
2.     Ultraviolet radiation
3.     Component  of  air  in  small quantity
4.     Visible radiation
5.     Infrared radiation
Codes :
(a)         (b)         (c)           (d)
(A)   1             4            5              3
(B)   2             3            5              1
(C)   1             4            3              2
(D)   2             5            3              1
21.   Iron   ore   from   Kudremukh   is most   likely   to   be   exported through—
(A)   Goa
(B)   Kochi
(C)   Mangalore
(D)   Ennore
22.   Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Type of vegetation)
(a)   Mangrove  (b)  Scrub
(c)    Teak            (d)  Coniferous
List-II
(State)
1.     Madhya Pradesh
2.     Karnataka
3.     Rajasthan
4.     Arunachal Pradesh
Codes :
(a)         (b)         (c)           (d)
(A)   4             1            3              2
(B)   2             1            3              4
(C)   4             3            1              2
(D)   2             3            1              4
23.   Arrange the following States on the basis of ascending dates of the onset of monsoon—
1.      Uttar Pradesh
2.      West Bengal
3.      Kerala
4.      Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)   2–3–1–4      (B)  3–2–1–4
(C)   3–1–2–4      (D)  1–2–3–4
24.   Which of the following are west-flowing rivers ?
1.      Krishna       2.  Narmada
3.      Mahanadi    4.  Sabarmati
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)   2 and 4        (B)  1 and 3
(C)   1 and 4       (D)  2 and 4
25.   Which   of   the   following   state-ments are correct ?
1.      In a cyclone, the area of low pressure  is  at  the  centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure.
2.      In a cyclone, the areas of low pressure surround the area of high pressure.
3.      In an anti-cyclone, the area of   high   pressure   is   sur-rounded by the areas of low pressure.
4.      In an anti-cyclone, the area of   low   pressure   is   sur-rounded  by  the  areas  of high pressure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)   1 and 2        (B)  1 and 3
(C)   1 and 4       (D)  2 and 4
26.   Which part of brain controls fine movement,   maintains   balance and equilibrium of the body and muscle tone in a human being ?
(A)   Cerebrum
(B)   Thalamus
(C)   Cerebellum
(D)   Hypothalamus
27.   Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiplies asexually by—
(A)   budding
(B)   binary fission
(C)   multiple fission
(D)   sporogony
28.   Administering   a   vaccine   pro-vides   protection   by   inducing synthesis of antibodies (proteins) specific to the vaccine. The cell in the body responsible for the pro-duction of antibodies is—
(A)   granulocyte
(B)   lymphocyte
(C)   erythrocyte (red blood cell)
(D)   platelet
29.   Biological   catalysts   in   living organisms are known as—
(A)   hormones  (B)  vitamins
(C)   steroids     (D)  enzymes
30.   To  which  one  of  the  following types of organism do mushrooms belong ?
(A)   Algae          (B)  Ferns
(C)   Fungi         (D)  Lichens
31.   Among the following elements, which one is essential for the transmission of impulses in the nerve fibre ?
(A)   Calcium     (B)  Iron
(C)   Sodium      (D)  Zinc
32.   Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from—
(A)   gene therapy
(B)   stem cell therapy
(C)   xenograft
(D)   transfusion
33.   Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get contaminated with—
(A)   lead
(B)   aluminium
(C)   iron
(D)   magnesium
34.   Which one among the following produes seeds but not flowers ?
(A)   Cashew nut
(B)   Coffee
(C)   Groundnut
(D)   Pine
35.   Which  among  the  following  is not a true fruit ?
(A)   Apple         (B)  Date
(C)   Grape         (D)  Plum
Directions—(Q. 36–42)          The following seven items consist of two  statements,  Statement  I  and  State-ment II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Codes :
(A)  Both the statements are indi-vidually true and Statement II is the correct explanation    of Statement I.
(B)   Both the statements are indi-vidually true but Statement II is not the correct explana-tion of Statement I.
(C)  Statement I is true but State-ment II is false.
(D)  Statement I is false but State-ment II is true.
36.   Statement I : Coalition in India is always a post-poll phenomenon.
Statement  II  : The  United  Pro-gressive   Alliance   was   formed after the Lok Sabha Election of 2004.
37.   Statement I : The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution.
Statement II : It provides Funda-mental Rights to individuals.
38.   Statement I : In order to create linguistic provinces in India, the Congress Party constituted Moti-lal Nehru Committee in 1928.
Statement II : The Motilal Nehru Committee suggested creation of linguistic provinces in India.
39.   Statement I : During the day, winds blow from sea to land.
Statement II : The land gets more heated than the surrounding sea, hence lower pressure develops over land as compared to sea.
40.   Statement I : Winds are deflected to   their   right   in   the   northern hemisphere and to their left in the southern hemisphere.
Statement II : The Earth’s axis is inclined.
41.   Statement I : Pressure gradients determine the velocity of winds.
Statement II : When isobars (lines of equal atmospheric  pressure) are   closely   spaced,   the wind velocity would be gentle.
42.   Statement I : Temperatures of countries like United Kingdom, Norway,   the   Netherlands   and Denmark are higher as compared to   places   located   on   similar latitudes during the winter.
Statement II : United Kingdom, Norway,   the   Netherlands   and Denmark are located on the coast.
43.   Consider the following statement and identify with the help of the code   given   below   the   Viceroy who   made   the   statement   and when :
In my belief, Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambi-tions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.
Codes :
(A)   Lord Curzon, in a letter to the Secretary of States in 1900
(B)   Lord     Curzon,    while announc­ing    the   partition    of Bengal
(C)   Lord Dufferin, during the farewell speech at Calcutta
(D)   Lord Minto, while address-ing the Muslim delegation which met him at Shimla in 1906
44.   The   Copenhagen   Summit   for Climate, 2009 saw—
(A)   an   agreement   among   the participants over CO2 emission
(B)   unanimity of views among the developed and BASIC bloc of countries
(C)   rise of African countries as a bloc
(D)   acceptance of the US as a leader to attain the objective of the Copenhagen Summit
45.   Consider   the   following   para-graph and identify with the help of   the   code   given   below   the writer referred to therein :
She is the winner of the Sahitya Akademi     Award,    the   Jnanpith Award and is also India’s first Prin-cipal Prince Claus laureate. One of the most celebrated writers of con-temporary Indian literature, she is noted for her novels which include the  Moth-Eaten   Howdah   of   the Tusker,  Pages  Stained  with  Blood and The Man from Chinnamasta.
Codes :
(A)   Anita Desai
(B)   Indira Goswami
(C)   Mahasweta Devi
(D)   Chitra Mudgal
46.   Consider    the    following   para-graph and identify with the help of the code given below the Church referred to therein :
Considered   as   one   of   the   best examples of baroque architecture in India, this World Heritage Monu-ment is dedicated to Infant Jesus. It houses the sacred relics of St. Francis Xavier, the patron saint, who died in 1552.
Codes :
(A)   Santa Cruz Basilica
(B)   St. Francis Church
(C)   Church of the Holy Cross
(D)   Basilica of Bom Jesus
47.   Ms. Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is the first Indian woman—
(A)   to reach Antarctica
(B)   pilot inducted in Indian Air Force
(C)   to ski to the South Pole
(D)   to  win  the  gold  medal  in Asian Boxing Championship
48.   Which one among the following is the latest milestone of Doordar­shan,  the  public  broadcaster  of India ?
(A)   Launch of enrichment/cul-tural channel—DD Bharati
(B)   Launch of 24 hours news channel—DD news
(C)   Launch of sports channel—DD Sports
(D)   Formation of Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting     Corporation    of India)
49.   START  (Strategic  Arms  Reduc-tion Treaty) is a treaty between/ among—
(A)   China and Japan
(B)   USA and Russia
(C)   USA and European Union
(D)   China,    India,    USA    and Russia
50.   Which one of the following is not a member of BASIC bloc of coun-tries ?
(A)   South Africa
(B)   China
(C)   India
(D)   Australia
51.   ‘Pitch’    is    a    characteristic    of sound that depends upon its—
(A)   intensity
(B)   frequency
(C)   quality
(D)   None of the above
52.   The ratio of the focal length of the objective to the focal length of the eyepiece is greater than one for—
(A)   a microscope
(B)   a telescope
(C)   both microscope and tele-scope
(D)   neither microscope nor tele-scope
53.   The effective resistance of three equal resistances, each of resis-tance r, connected in parallel, is—
(A)                    (B)
(C)   3r (D)  r3
54.   A fan produces a feeling of com-fort    during    hot     weather, because—
(A)   our body radiates more heat in air
(B)   fan supplies cool air
(C)   conductivity of air increases
(D)   our perspiration evaporates rapidly
55.   Which one of the following state-ments is correct ?
(A)   Only electrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom
(B)   Both electrons and protons reside inside the nucleus of an atom
(C)   Only neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom
(D)   Both protons and neutrons can reside inside the nucleus of an atom
56.   The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of gamma rays—
(A)   is < 1
(B)   is > 1
(C)   is 1
(D)   depends upon the ratio of their frequencies
57.   Which one of the following pairs of   rays   is   electromagnetic   in nature ?
(A)   Beta rays and gamma rays
(B)   Cathode rays and X-rays
(C)   Alpha rays and beta rays
(D)   X-rays and gamma rays
58.   The magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet—
(A)   intersect inside the body of the magnet
(B)   intersect  at  neutral  points only
(C)   intersect only at north and south poles
(D)   cannot intersect at all
59.   The specific resistance of a con-ducting wire depends upon—
(A)   length  of  the  wire,  area  of cross-section  of  the  wire  and material of the wire
(B)   length of the wire and area of cross-section of the wire but not on the material of the wire
(C)   material of the wire only but neither on the length of the wire nor on the area of cross-section of the wire
(D)   length of the wire only but neither on the area of cross-sec-tion  of  the  wire  nor  on  the material of the wire
60.   When X-rays are produced—
(A)   heat   is   generated   at   the target
(B)   heat is absorbed at the target
(C)   the temperature of the target remains constant
(D)   brilliant light is seen at the target
61.   Which one of the statements given below is not correct ?
(A)   A   vertical   plane   passing through the axis of a freely sus-pended   magnet   is   called   the magnetic meridian
(B)   A   vertical   plane   passing through  the  axis  of  rotation  of the Earth is called the geographi-cal meridian
(C)   The   degree   to   which   the magnetic  field  can  penetrate  a medium, is known as the relative permeability of the medium
(D)   The relative permeability is not a dimensionless quantity
62.   If an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the position of the image is—
(A)   at the principal focus
(B)   between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(C)   at the centre of curvature
(D)   beyond the centre of curva-ture
63.   The  radius  of  curvature  of  a plane mirror—
(A)   is zero
(B)   is infinity
(C)   can  be  anywhere  between zero and infinity
(D)   None of the above
64.   A  coin  in  a  beaker  filled  with water appears raised. This phe-nomenon occurs because of the property of—
(A)   reflection of light
(B)   refraction of light
(C)   total internal reflection of light
(D)   interference of light
65.   A  ray  of  light  falls  on  a  trans-parent glass plate. A part of it is reflected and  a  part  is  refracted.  The reflected and refracted rays can   be   perpendicular   to   each other for—
(A)   angle of incidence equal to 90∞
(B)   angle of incidence equal to zero
(C)   only one angle of incidence
(D)   more   than    one    angle   of incidence
66.   A man with a dark skin, in com-parison with a man with a white skin, will experience—
(A)   less heat and less cold
(B)   less heat and more cold
(C)   more heat and less cold
(D)   more heat and more cold
67.   Which one among the following denotes    the   lowest   tempera-ture ?
(A)   1∞ on the Celsius scale
(B)   1∞ on the Kelvin scale
(C)   1∞ on the Fahrenheit scale
(D)   1∞ on the Reaumur scale
68.   A   particle   oscillates   in   one dimension about the equilibrium position subject to a force Fx (x) that has an associated potential energy U (x). If k is the force con-stant, which one of the following relations is true ?
(A)   Fx (x) = – kx2
(B)   Fx (x) = – kx
(C)   U (x) = kx
(D)   U (x) = kx
69.   When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, then the phase difference between the velocity and the acceleration is—
(A)   0∞                (B)  90∞
(C)   180∞           (D)  270∞
70.   A   body   is   thrown   vertically upwards and then falls back on the ground. Its potential energy is maximum—
(A)   on the ground
(B)   at the maximum height
(C)   during the return journey
(D)   both on the ground and at the maximum height
71.   Mahatma         Gandhi       and Rabindranath   Tagore   did   not define   India   as   a   ‘nation’, because they were—
(A)   appreciative    of    cultural divisivenss
(B)   opposed   to   the   idea   of homogeneity
(C)   supportive of ‘oneness’
(D)   critical of hegemonic culture
72.   Socialism refers to—
(A)   state-controlled economy
(B)   liquidation   of   the   bour-geoisie
(C)   removal of peasantry from administration
(D)   establishment    of    military dictatorship
73.   According to Karl Marx, attain-ment of communism is possible only after—
(A)   resolution     of     tension between the leader and led
(B)   completion   of   permanent revolution
(C)   emergence of exploitation-free society
(D)   disappearance of difference between urban and rural areas
74.   India’s ‘Look East Policy’—
1.      was articulated during the reign of H. D. Deve Gowda as India’s Prime Minister.
2.      is directed towards South-East Asian countries.
3.      is   about   controlling   ter­rorism.
4.      seeks   to   develop   a   bond among various countries on the    basis    of    economic cooperation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)   1 and 2        (B)  2 and 3
(C)   2 and 4       (D)  3 and 4
75.   Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because of—
(A)   greenhouse effect
(B)   depletion of ozone layer
(C)   insolation
(D)   terrestrial radiation
76.   Match   List-I   with   List-II   and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Landform)
(a)   Inselbergs
(b)   Stalagmite
(c)    Delta
(d)   Moraines
List-II
(Agent of erosion / deposition)
1.     River
2.     Glacier
3.     Underground water
4.     Wind
Codes :
(a)         (b)         (c)           (d)
(A)   4             2            1              3
(B)   3             1            2              4
(C)   1             2            3              4
(D)   4             3            1              2
77.   If it is 12 noon in a city located on 90∞ W   longitude,   what   would   be the time in a city located on 105∞ W longitude ?
(A)   13 : 00 hours
(B)   12 : 30 hours
(C)   111: 30 hours
(D)   11 : 00 hours
78.   As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily range of tempera-ture tends to—
(A)   decrease       (B)  increase
(C)   be constant  (D)  fluctuate
79.   Doldrums are characterized by—
(A)   uniform low pressure
(B)   uniform high pressure
(C)   high wind velocity
(D)   low humidity
80.   Glaciated regions are associated with—
(A)   V-shaped valley
(B)   U-shaped valley
(C)   sand dunes
(D)   stalactites
81.   Which  one  of  the  following  is generally found in sedimentary rocks ?
(A)   Basalt
(B)   Silica
(C)   Shale
(D)   Magnesium
82.   The interval between two high tides is approximately—
(A)   4 hours       (B)  6 hours
(C)   12 hours    (D)  24 hours
83.   Xerophytes thrive in—
(A)   hot and arid condition
(B)   cool and wet condition
(C)   hot and wet condition
(D)   cool and arid condition
84.   Biodiversity is highest in—
(A)   Tundra zone
(B)   Prairie zone
(C)   Torrid zone
(D)   Tropic zone
85.   Which   of   the   following   state-ments is/are correct ?
1.      Lunar   eclipse   takes   place when    the    Earth    comes directly  between  the  Sun and the Moon.
2.      Solar eclipse happens when the   Moon   comes   directly between  the  Sun  and  the Earth.
3.      Lunar   eclipse   takes   place when the Sun comes directly between  the  Earth  and the Moon.
4.      Solar eclipse happens when the   Earth   comes   directly between   the   Sun   and   the Moon.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A)   1, 2 and 3
(B)   3 and 4
(C)   1 and 2 only
(D)   2 only
86.   Which  of  the  following  is/are instance(s) of violation of human rights ?
1.      A person was detained by the   security   forces   while going  for  casting  vote  in Parliamentary Election.
2.      A civilian was killed by the army    while    undertaking combing operation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes :
(A)   1 only
(B)   2 only
(C)   Both 1 and 2
(D)   Neither 1 nor 2
87.   Consider   the   following   para-graph about one of the prominent personalities of India and identify him/her  using  the  code  given below :
One of the founder members of the Progressive Artists Group, he/she painted several important series of paintings like the Mahabharata and Ramayana, Christ and the Lamb, Peace Doves, Women with Roosters and Mother Teresa. He/she made a symbolic film, Through the Eyes of a Painter,  which  won  him/her  the Golden  Bear  Award  at  the  Berlin Film Festival.
Codes :
(A)   Dhiraj Choudhury
(B)   Satish Gujral
(C)   M. F. Hussain
(D)   Amrita Shergil
88.   Operation  Vajraprahar is  the joint  counter-terrorism  exer­cise between Indian Army and—
(A)   US Army
(B)   Chinese Army
(C)   Russian Army
(D)   Nepalese Army
89.   The notion of saptanga that was introduced      in     Arthashastra includes—
(A)   kings, territory, administra-tion and treasury
(B)   music,   dance,   ragas   and wrestling
(C)   ministers,    civil    servants, subalterns and those involved in espionage
(D)   aristocrats, acharyas, traders and monks
90.   The   immediate   cause   of   the revival of human rights in post-Second World War period was—
(A)   massive loss of lives in the War
(B)   nuclear     bombing     of Hiroshima and Nagasaki by the Americans
(C)   growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of Nazis over the Jews
(D)   emergence of Soviet Union as a Superpower
91.   Which one of the following with regard to the Poona Pact, 1932 is not correct ?
(A)   Adequate representation of depressed   sections   in   govern-ment jobs
(B)   Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in the provin-cial legislature
(C)   Acceptance   of   joint   elec-torate system
(D)   Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in the central legislature
92.   The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on—
(A)   the principle of federation and parliamentary system
(B)   the principle of secession of the British Indian provinces
(C)   acceptance of independence of India
(D)   acceptance of the idea of a Constituent Assembly to draft a Constitution
93.   Which  of  the  following  state-ments with regard to freedom struggle are correct ?
1.      The  British  rule  could  pre­vail in India on the basis of the consent or acquiescence of many sections of Indian people.
2.      The   social   basis   of   the colonial regime was among the  Zamindars  and  upper classes.
3.      The  Indian  National  Army forced  the  British  to  with-draw from India.
4.      The Hindu Mahasabha sup­ported the partition of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A)   1 and 2 only
(B)   2 and 3 only
(C)   3 and 4 only
(D)   1, 2, 3 and 4
94.   Which one of the following state-ments   with   regard   to   ‘Direct Action Day’ is correct ?
(A)   Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct Action Day’
(B)   ‘Direct Action’ took place in Delhi
(C)   ‘Direct Action Day’ led to the Bihar riot
(D)   ‘Direct Action’ was endorsed by the Congress Party
95.   Planning in India drew on—
(A)   the   New   Economic   Pro-gramme of Lenin
(B)   the Fabian Socialism of Sid-ney and Beatrice Webb
(C)   the  British  welfare  mecha-nism
(D)   new   democratic   develop-ment packages
96.   The  Haripura   Congress   (1938) remains  a  milestone  in   Indian freedom struggle, because—
(A)   it   declared   war   on   the British Empire
(B)   it     anointed     Jawaharlal Nehru as the future Prime Minis-ter of India
(C)   of the introduction of the idea of a planning commission
(D)   of   the   acceptance   of   the Government of India Act, 1935 by the Congress
97.   The Constitution (93rd Amend-ment) Act deals with—
(A)   local self-government
(B)   extension of reservation in educational institutions
(C)   basic structure of the Con-stitution of India
(D)   appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of India
98.   Which  of   the   following   state-ments is/are not violative of the principle of federalism ?
1.      The President of India takes over    administration     of provinces under the emer-gency provisions.
2.      The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.
3.      The distribution of powers between the Union and Pro-vinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A)   1 and 2        (B)  2 and 3
(C)   3 only        (D)  1 and 3
99.   Public  Interest  Litigation  (PIL) may be linked with—
(A)   judicial review
(B)   judicial activism
(C)   judicial intervention
(D)   judicial sanctity
100.   In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical of railways, because they are—
1.      carriers of plague germs
2.      instruments for frequency of famines
3.      responsible      for    creating class division in the society
4.      accident-prone
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A)   1, 2 and 3
(B)    1 and 2 only
(C)   2 and 3 only
(D)   1 and 4

Answers With Explanations:

1.   (b) Density   =   [ML– 3]
Specific gravity is a mere ratio and has no dimensions.
2.   (d)
3.   (d) Let the number of bulbs of 60W is n
\ Total power of the bulbs
=   n ¥ 60 W
P   =   V.i
fi      n ¥ 60   =   240 ¥ 4
fi               n =   16
4.   (B)    5. (a)     6. (c)    7. (a)    8. (D)
9.   (C) 10. (a)   11. (b)  12. (A)  13. (D)
14.   (b)  15. (a)   16. (c)  17. (c)   18. (b)
19.   (a) 20. (d)   21. (c)  22. (d)   23. (b)
24.   (a)  25. (b)   26. (c)  27. (b)   28. (b)
29.   (d) 30. (c)   31. (c)  32. (b)  33. (a)
34.   (d) 35. (a)   36. (d)  37. (a)  38. (A)
39.   (a)  40. (b)   41. (c)  42. (a)  43. (A)
44.   (C)  45. (b)   46. (d)  47. (c)   48. (b)
49.   (b)  50. (d)   51. (b)  52. (b)
53.   (b)              =   + +
fi                 =
fi               R   =
54.   (d) 55. (d)   56. (c)  57. (d)  58. (d)
59.   (c) 60. (a)   61. (d)  62. (c)   63. (b)
64.   (b)  65. (c)   66. (c)  67. (b)  68. (A)
69.   (b)   70. (b)   71. (c)  72. (A)  73. (c)
74.   (c) 75. (d)   76. (d)  77. (d)  78. (a)
79.   (a) 80. (a)   81. (c)  82. (c)  83. (a)
84.   (d) 85. (c)   86. (c)  87. (c)  88. (a)
89.   (a) 90. (c)   91. (a)  92. (A)  93. (D)
94.   (c) 95. (a)   96. (c)  97. (b)  98. (c)
99.           (c)          100. (c)

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